SK0-005 EXAM SIMULATOR FREE, LATEST SK0-005 TEST GUIDE

SK0-005 Exam Simulator Free, Latest SK0-005 Test Guide

SK0-005 Exam Simulator Free, Latest SK0-005 Test Guide

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CompTIA Server+ Certification Exam Sample Questions (Q267-Q272):

NEW QUESTION # 267
Which of the following will protect critical data during a natural disaster?

  • A. Environmental controls
  • B. Off-site storage
  • C. Data-at-rest encryption
  • D. Life-cycle management

Answer: B

Explanation:
Off-site storage involves storing data backups in a physically separate location from where the servers and primary data reside. This protects critical data in case the main site is damaged or destroyed due to a natural disaster, such as floods, fires, or earthquakes. Off-site storage can be in the form of cloud storage or physical tapes stored in a geographically distant location.
* Off-site storage (Answer A): It ensures that a company's critical data remains accessible even if the local infrastructure is compromised. This is a common part of disaster recovery planning and is crucial for business continuity.
* Life-cycle management (Option B): While important for managing data from creation to deletion, it does not specifically protect data during disasters.
* Environmental controls (Option C): These manage physical conditions like temperature and humidity but do not address the risk of data loss during disasters.
* Data-at-rest encryption (Option D): Encryption protects the confidentiality of stored data but does not ensure availability in the event of a disaster.
CompTIA Server+ Reference:This topic is covered under SK0-005 Objective 4.1: Summarize disaster recovery methods and concepts.


NEW QUESTION # 268
An upper management team is investigating a security breach of the company's filesystem. It has been determined that the breach occurred within the human resources department. Which of the following was used to identify the breach in the human resources department?

  • A. Multifactor authentication
  • B. User activity reports
  • C. Password policy
  • D. User groups

Answer: B

Explanation:
User activity reports were used to identify the security breach in the human resources department. User activity reports are records of the actions and events performed by users on a system or network, such as login
/logout times, files accessed or modified, commands executed, or websites visited. User activity reports can help monitor and audit user behavior, detect and investigate security incidents, and enforce policies and compliance. User activity reports can be generated by various tools, such as log management software, security information and event management (SIEM) systems, or user and entity behavior analytics (UEBA) solutions. References: [CompTIA Server+ Certification Exam Objectives], Domain 5.0: Security, Objective
5.2: Given a scenario, apply logical access control methods.


NEW QUESTION # 269
A technician is unable to access a server's package repository internally or externally. Which of the following are the MOST likely reasons? (Choose two.)

  • A. The system time is not synchronized
  • B. The external firewall is blocking access
  • C. The local system log file is full
  • D. The default gateway is incorrect
  • E. The server has an architecture mismatch
  • F. The technician does not have sufficient privileges

Answer: B,D

Explanation:
Explanation
The most likely reasons why the technician is unable to access a server's package repository internally or externally are that the external firewall is blocking access and that the default gateway is incorrect. A package repository is a source of software packages that can be installed or updated on a server using a package manager tool. A package repository can be accessed over a network using a URL or an IP address. However, if there are any network issues or misconfigurations, the access to the package repository can be blocked or failed. An external firewall is a device or software that controls the incoming and outgoing network traffic based on predefined rules or policies. An external firewall can block access to a package repository if it does not allow traffic on certain ports or protocols that are used by the package manager tool. A default gateway is a device or address that routes network traffic from one network to another network. A default gateway can be incorrect if it does not match the actual device or address that connects the server's network to other networks, such as the internet. An incorrect default gateway can prevent the server from reaching the package repository over other networks. question 63 Correct answer: A Explanation: The RAID level that provides the highest possible capacity for a storage array is RAID 0. RAID 0 is a type of RAID level that provides performance enhancement by using striping. Striping means dividing data into blocks and distributing them across multiple disks to increase speed and capacity. RAID 0 does not provide any fault tolerance or redundancy, as it does not use any parity or mirroring techniques. RAID 0 uses all of the available disk space for data storage, without losing any space for overhead. Therefore, RAID 0 provides the highest possible capacity for a storage array, but also has the highest risk of data loss.


NEW QUESTION # 270
A server administrator has noticed that the storage utilization on a file server is growing faster than planned. The administrator wants to ensure that, in the future, there is a more direct relationship between the number of users using the server and the amount of space that might be used. Which of the following would BEST enable this correlation?

  • A. Disk quotas
  • B. Partitioning
  • C. Compression
  • D. Deduplication

Answer: A

Explanation:
The best way to ensure that there is a more direct relationship between the number of users using the server and the amount of space that might be used is to implement disk quotas. Disk quotas are a feature that allows a server administrator to limit the amount of disk space that each user or group can use on a file server. Disk quotas can help manage storage utilization, prevent disk space exhaustion, and enforce fair usage policies. Disk quotas can also provide reports and alerts on disk space usage and quota status.


NEW QUESTION # 271
An administrator needs to perform bare-metal maintenance on a server in a remote datacenter. Which of the following should the administrator use to access the server's console?

  • A. VNC
  • B. A crash cart
  • C. RDP
  • D. SSH
  • E. IP KVM

Answer: E

Explanation:
The administrator should use an IP KVM to access the server's console remotely for bare-metal maintenance.
An IP KVM stands for Internet Protocol Keyboard Video Mouse, which is a device that allows remote control of a server's keyboard, video, and mouse over a network connection, such as LAN or Internet. An IP KVM enables an administrator to perform tasks such as BIOS configuration, boot sequence selection, operating system installation, etc., without being physically present at the server location.
The other options are not suitable for bare-metal maintenance because they require either physical access to the server (a crash cart) or an operating system running on the server (VNC, RDP, SSH). A crash cart is a mobile unit that contains a monitor, keyboard, mouse, and cables that can be plugged into a server for direct access to its console. VNC stands for Virtual Network Computing, which is a software that allows remote desktop sharing and control over a network connection using a graphical user interface (GUI). RDP stands for Remote Desktop Protocol, which is a protocol that allows remote desktop access and control over a network connection using a GUI or command-line interface (CLI). SSH stands for Secure Shell, which is a protocol that allows secure remote login and command execution over a network connection using a CLI.


NEW QUESTION # 272
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